OT Lesson 1 Study Notes: Moses 1

Verses 1-2: A short prologue to Moses begins here. Where does it end? What does it tell us about this book? Of what significance are mountains in scripture? For example, why do revelations so often occur on mountains? Why is it important that we know Moses spoke with God face to face? What does it mean to say “the glory of God was upon Moses”? What is his glory?

In the Old Testament (e.g., Exodus 2:14), the Hebrew word translated glory comes from a root word meaning “heavy,” and it means, figuratively, honor or glory. Often it connotes beauty, and when referring to God it has a visible manifestation, usually overpowering.

What does verse 5 tell us about what we read in these two verses? How about verse 39? Do D&C 29:36 or 88:19 help us understand these verses?

Verse 3: Why does the Father tell Moses his name? He has many names, why does he here use this particular name, Endless? Why does he explain his name with a rhetorical question? What does that question tell us?

Verses 4-5: Why does the Father withhold the vision of some of his works from Moses? In what sense or senses are the works of God without end? In what sense or senses are his words without end? What is God teaching in these verses? How is that relevant to Moses? How is it relevant to us?

Verse 6: Why does the Father tell Moses that Moses is in the similitude of the Only Begotten? In what way or ways is he in that similitude? Is there any connection between Moses being in the similitude of the Only Begotten and the Only Begotten being the Savior? Why does the Father say that the Only Begotten “is and shall be the Savior” (italics added)? The Father tells Moses that the Only Begotten is and will be the Savior because he is full of grace and truth. Can you explain that? What does it mean to be full of grace and truth? Is “grace and truth” a pleonastic pair? (In other words, does it repeat the idea, using two words to mean the same thing?) Why does being full of them make him the Savior? Why does the Father add “but there is no God beside me” immediately after telling Moses of the Savior? What does it mean to say that all things are present to him? What does that have to do with the rest of the verse? In what ways can something be present? The last clause of the verse says that Father’s knowledge makes all things present to him. To say that knowledge makes things present is an unusual way to speak. What do you make of what this verse says? Does it suggest anything about how things are present before God? Are things ever present for us in that way?

Read the rest of this story at feastuponthewordblog.org
Comments and feedback can be sent to feedback@ldsliving.com